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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 05:30

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

How do people in your country say "you're welcome" in their native language(s)? Is it a commonly known phrase or do most people just reply with "no problem"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.